Question 1
(Refer to figure 48.) VASI lights as shown by illustration C indicate that the airplane is

a. above the glide slope.
b. below the glide slope.
c. off course to the left.

You answered "above the glide slope.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: White over white lights on a two-bar VASI indicate that the aircraft is high on the glideslope. " Red over white, you're alright (on the glideslope) " White over White, you'll fly all night (too high) " Red over Red, you're dead (too low)


Question 2
To set the high intensity runway lights on medium intensity, the pilot should click the microphone seven times, then click it

a. three times.
b. five times.
c. one time.

You answered "five times.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Pilot Controlled Lighting (PCL) is installed at many uncontrolled airports in order to have the lights on only when operationally necessary. Click the microphone on the light frequency (often the same as the local UNICOM frequency, but just as often not) seven times to activate the lights at maximum intensity, and then five times to dim them to medium intensity. If you wanted low intensity, you would click three times.


Question 3
(Refer to figure 15.) Between 1000Z and 1200Z the visibility at KMEM is forecast to be?

a. 3 statute miles.
b. 1/2 statute mile.
c. 6 statute miles.

You answered "3 statute miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Under the KMEM section of the figure, the forecasts are in chronological order. 1000Z to 1200Z clearly lies between the FM0200 and FM1600 lines ("from 0200Z" and "from 1600Z", respectively.) Indeed, there is a line that says "BECMG 1012 00000KT 3SM ..." The "1012" part refers to "between 1000Z and 1200Z" and 3SM refers to 3 statute miles visibility.


Question 4
The term 'angle of attack' is defined as the angle

a. formed by the longitudinal axis of the airplane and the chord line of the wing.
b. between the airplane's climb angle and the horizon.
c. between the wing chord line and the relative wind.

You answered "between the wing chord line and the relative wind.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 1 defines: Angle of Attack - the angle between the chord line of the wing and the direction of the relative wind.


Question 5
Which items are included in the empty weight of an aircraft?

a. Full fuel tanks and engine oil to capacity.
b. Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.
c. Only the airframe, powerplant, and optional equipment.

You answered "Unusable fuel and undrainable oil.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 4 defines empty weight as: Weight, basic empty - consists of the airframe, engines, and all items of operating equipment that have fixed locations and are permanently installed in the airplane. It includes optional and special equipment, fixed ballast, hydraulic fluid, unusable (residual) fuel, and full engine oil (some older aircraft only include undrainable residual oil; refer to the aircraft weight and balance documents).


Question 6
(Refer to figure 30, illustration 3.) What is the magnetic bearing FROM the station?

a. 115°.
b. 025°.
c. 295°.

You answered "115°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The tail of the bearing pointer is on the 115 degree index.


Question 7
The letters VHF/DF appearing in the Airport/Facility Directory for a certain airport indicate that

a. this airport is designated as an airport of entry.
b. this airport has a direct-line phone to the Flight Service Station.
c. the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.

You answered "the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Airport/Facility Directory Legend tells us the Flight Service Station has equipment with which to determine your direction from the station.


Question 8
One in-flight condition necessary for structural icing to form is

a. visible moisture.
b. small temperature/dewpoint spread.
c. stratiform clouds.

You answered "visible moisture.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 10 states: Two conditions are necessary for structural icing in flight: (1) the aircraft must be flying through visible water such as rain or cloud droplets, and (2) temperature at the point where the moisture strikes the aircraft must be 0° C or colder. Aerodynamic cooling can lower temperature of an airfoil to 0° C even though the ambient temperature is a few degrees warmer.


Question 9
Transcribed Weather Broadcasts (TWEBs) may be monitored by tuning the appropriate radio receiver to certain

a. airport advisory frequencies.
b. ATIS frequencies.
c. VOR and NDB frequencies.

You answered "VOR and NDB frequencies.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45D, Section 1 states: The Transcribed Weather Broadcast (TWEB) is a continuous broadcast on selected low/medium frequency navigation facilities (190 to 535 kHz) and VORs (108.0 to 117.95 MHz).


Question 10
When operating an aircraft at cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet MSL up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, supplemental oxygen shall be used during

a. that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.
b. that flight time in excess of 10 minutes at those altitudes.
c. the entire flight time at those altitudes.

You answered "that flight time in excess of 30 minutes at those altitudes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.211 states: a. General. No person may operate a civil aircraft of U.S. registry -- 1. At cabin pressure altitudes above 12,500 feet (MSL) up to and including 14,000 feet (MSL) unless the required minimum flight crew is provided with and uses supplemental oxygen for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than 30 minutes duration.


Question 11
In the Northern Hemisphere, a magnetic compass will normally indicate initially a turn toward the west if

a. a left turn is entered from a north heading.
b. an aircraft is accelerated while on a north heading.
c. a right turn is entered from a north heading.

The correct answer is: "a right turn is entered from a north heading."
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 3 states:If on a northerly heading and a turn is made toward east or west, the initial indication of the compass lags or indicates a turn in the opposite direction. This lag diminishes as the turn progresses toward east or west where there is no turn error.


Question 12
Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude?

a. In colder than standard air temperature.
b. In warmer than standard air temperature.
c. When density altitude is higher than indicated altitude.

The correct answer is: "In colder than standard air temperature."
Reference: In colder air, actual true altitude is lower than in warmer air of the same pressure.


Question 13
The airworthiness of an aircraft can be determined by a preflight inspection and a

a. log book endorsement from a flight instructor.
b. statement from the owner or operator that the aircraft is airworthy.
c. review of the maintenance records.

You answered "review of the maintenance records.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.407 states: a. No person may operate any aircraft that has undergone maintenance, preventive maintenance, rebuilding, or alteration unless -- 1. It has been approved for return to service by a person authorized under §43.7 of this chapter; and 2. The maintenance record entry required by §43.9 or §43.11, as applicable, of this chapter has been made.


Question 14
(Refer to figure 26, area 2.) The control tower frequency for Addison Airport is

a. 122.95 MHz.
b. 133.4 MHz.
c. 126.0 MHz.

You answered "126.0 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Sectional Chart Legend shows us that the tower frequency of 126.0 is listed after 'CT' in the airport information block.


Question 15
During a night flight, you observe a steady white light and a flashing red light ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a. The other aircraft is crossing to the right.
b. The other aircraft is flying away from you.
c. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

You answered "The other aircraft is flying away from you.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-3, Chapter 10 states:The standard instruments required for instrument flight under 14 CFR part 91 are a valuable asset for aircraft control at night. An anti-collision light system, including a flashing or rotating beacon and position lights, is required airplane equipment. Airplane position lights are arranged similar to those of boats and ships. A red light is positioned on the left wingtip, a green light on the right wingtip, and a white light on the tail.


Question 16
(Refer to figure 20.) How are Significant Weather Prognostic Charts best used by a pilot?

a. For overall planning at all altitudes.
b. For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).
c. For analyzing current frontal activity and cloud coverage.

You answered "For determining areas to avoid (freezing levels and turbulence).".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Significant Weather Prognostic Charts are valid from the surface up to 24,000', so they are NOT intended for planning at ALL altitudes. They do outline areas of IFR, MVFR, freezing, and turbulence - areas to avoid.


Question 17
(Refer to figure 22, area 2.) Which airport is located at approximately 47°39'30"N latitude and 100°53'00"W longitude?

a. Johnson.
b. Linrud.
c. Crooked Lake.

You answered "Crooked Lake.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From the 101 West longitude line, move east 7 minutes (remember, each line of longitude and latitude is divided in 60 minutes (sections), not 100 minutes - there is NO such thing as 47°79'30"N as 79 is greater than 60 (59, actually)). From the 48 North latitude line, move south 20.5 minutes. This location is directly over the Crooked Lake airport.


Question 18
The operator of an aircraft that has been involved in an accident is required to file an accident report within how many days?

a. 7.
b. 10.
c. 5

You answered "10.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 49 Part 830.15 states: a. Reports. The operator of a civil, public (as specified in Sec. 830.5), or foreign aircraft shall file a report on Board Form 6120.1/2 within 10 days after an accident, or after 7 days if an overdue aircraft is still missing. A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required by Sec. 830.5(a) shall be filed only as requested by an authorized representative of the Board.


Question 19
The angular difference between true north and magnetic north is

a. magnetic deviation.
b. magnetic variation.
c. compass acceleration error.

You answered "magnetic variation.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Magnetic variation is the angular difference in degrees between the geographic north pole and the magnetic north pole. This variation is caused by the earth's magnetic field, which is constantly changing. Since variation differs according to geographic location and time (it varies from year to year), its effect on the compass cannot be removed by any type of automatic compensation. Instead, we rely on charts that are regularly updated to show the latest variation readings. Variation is called west variation when the earth's magnetic field draws the compass needle to the left of the geographic north pole and east variation when the needle is drawn to the right of the geographic north pole.


Question 20
May aircraft wreckage be moved prior to the time the NTSB takes custody?

a. Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.
b. No, it may not be moved under any circumstances.
c. Yes, but only if moved by a federal, state, or local law enforcement officer.

You answered "Yes, but only to protect the wreckage from further damage.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 49 Part 830.10 states: (b) Prior to the time the Board or its authorized representative takes custody of aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, such wreckage, mail, or cargo may not be disturbed or moved except to the extent necessary: 1. To remove persons injured or trapped; 2. To protect the wreckage from further damage; or 3. To protect the public from injury. (c) Where it is necessary to move aircraft wreckage, mail, or cargo, sketches, descriptive notes, and photographs shall be made, if possible, of the original positions and condition of the wreckage and any significant impact marks. (d) The operator of an aircraft involved in an accident or incident shall retain all records, reports, internal documents, and memoranda dealing with the accident or incident, until authorized by the Board to the contrary.


Question 21
To update a previous weather briefing, a pilot should request

a. an abbreviated briefing.
b. a standard briefing.
c. an outlook briefing.

You answered "an abbreviated briefing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45D, Section 1 states: An ABBREVIATED briefing will be provided at the user's request (1) to supplement mass disseminated data, (2) to update a previous briefing, or (3) to request specific information only.


Question 22
(Refer to figure 51.) The traffic patterns indicated in the segmented circle have been arranged to avoid flights over an area to the

a. north of the airport.
b. south of the airport.
c. southeast of the airport.

You answered "southeast of the airport.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The traffic pattern indicators show left traffic for Runway 36 and 09, and right traffic for Runway 18 and 27. This indicates flights would avoid the area southeast of the airport. Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading rounded off to the nearest 10 degrees. A runway with a magnetic heading of 250o is Runway 25. A runway facing due magnetic north (approx 355o-005o) is Runway 36. A runway facing due magnetic west is runway 27. If you know the numbering at one end of a runway, you can always calculate (or know) the number at the other end, as it is always a fixed reciprocal. For example, a runway with 18 painted on one end will always have 36 on the other. With time and experience, you will come to recognize other such pairs from memory. For now, you can practice figuring out the reciprocal of a given runway. Try figuring out the reciprocals (other ends) of Runays 7, 11, and 32 (answer at the bottom of this explanation). The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-3 states: The segmented circle system consists of the following components: " The segmented circle: Located in a position affording maximum visibility to pilots in the air and on the ground and providing a centralized location for other elements of the system.; " The wind direction indicator. A wind cone, wind sock, or wind tee installed near the operational runway to indicate wind direction. The large end of the wind cone/wind sock points into the wind as does the large end (cross bar) of the wind tee. In lieu of a tetrahedron and where a wind sock or wind cone is collocated with a wind tee, the wind tee may be manually aligned with the runway in use to indicate landing direction. These signaling devices may be located in the center of the segmented circle and may be lighted for night use. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron to indicate wind direction.; " The landing direction indicator: A tetrahedron is installed when conditions at the airport warrant its use. It may be used to indicate the direction of landings and takeoffs. A tetrahedron may be located at the center of a segmented circle and may be lighted for night operations. The small end of the tetrahedron points in the direction of landing. Pilots are cautioned against using a tetrahedron for any purpose other than as an indicator of landing direction. Further, pilots should use extreme caution when making runway selection by use of a tetrahedron in very light or calm wind conditions as the tetrahedron may not be aligned with the designated calmwind runway. At airports with control towers, the tetrahedron should only be referenced when the control tower is not in operation. Tower instructions supersede tetrahedron indications.; " Landing strip indicators: Installed in pairs as shown in the segmented circle diagram and used to show the alignment of landing strips.; " Traffic pattern indicators: Arranged in pairs in conjunction with landing strip indicators and used to indicate the direction of turns when there is a variation from the normal left traffic pattern. (If there is no segmented circle installed at the airport, traffic pattern indicators may be installed on or near the end of the runway.) Runway 7 - Runway 25, Runway 11 - Runway 29, Runway 32 - Runway 14


Question 23
How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter?

a. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude.
b. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.
c. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude.

The correct answer is: "Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude."
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 3 states: Variations in air temperature also affect the altimeter. On a warm day, the expanded air is lighter in weight per unit volume than on a cold day, and consequently the pressure levels are raised. For example, the pressure level where the altimeter indicates 10,000 feet will be HIGHER on a warm day than under standard conditions. On a cold day, the reverse is true, and the 10,000-foot level would be LOWER. The adjustment made by the pilot to compensate for nonstandard pressures does not compensate for nonstandard temperatures. Therefore, if terrain or obstacle clearance is a factor in the selection of a cruising altitude, particularly at higher altitudes, remember to anticipate that COLDER-THAN-STANDARD TEMPERATURE will place the aircraft LOWER than the altimeter indicates.


Question 24
What is a characteristic of stable air?

a. Stratiform clouds.
b. Unlimited visibility.
c. Cumulus clouds.

You answered "Stratiform clouds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Stable air forms stratiform (layered, flat, pancake-like) clouds. Cumulous clouds are "puffy" and "billowy", caused by the movement of air--that is, relatively unstable air. Unlimited visibility y is not a necessary characteristic of stable air. When moisture is present, stable air may have poor visibility, such as on a humid, summer day.


Question 25
Responsibility for collision avoidance in an alert area rests with

a. Air Traffic Control.
b. the controlling agency.
c. all pilots.

You answered "all pilots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-4-6 states:Alert Areas are depicted on aeronautical charts to inform nonparticipating pilots of areas that may contain a high volume of pilot training or an unusual type of aerial activity. Pilots should be particularly alert when flying in these areas. All activity within an Alert Area shall be conducted in accordance with FARs, without waiver, and pilots of participating aircraft as well as pilots transiting the area shall be equally responsible for collision avoidance.


Question 26
When range and economy of operation are the principal goals, the pilot must ensure that the airplane will be operated at the recommended speed for

a. specific endurance.
b. long-range cruise performance.
c. equivalent airspeed.

You answered "long-range cruise performance. ".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Total range is dependent on both fuel available and specific range. When range and economy of operation are the principal goals, the pilot must ensure that the airplane will be operated at the recommended long-range cruise condition. By this procedure, the airplane will be capable of its maximum design-operating radius, or can achieve flight distances less than the maximum with a maximum of fuel reserve at the destination.


Question 27
(Refer to figure 52.) What information should be entered in block 12 for a VFR day flight?

a. The estimated time en route plus 45 minutes.
b. The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.
c. The estimated time en route plus 30 minutes.

You answered "The amount of usable fuel on board expressed in time.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 5-1-4 states:Block 12. Specify the fuel on board in hours and minutes.


Question 28
What information is contained in the Notices to Airman Publication (NTAP)?

a. Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.
b. All Current NOTAMs.
c. Current NOTAM (L) and FDC NOTAMs.

You answered "Current NOTAM (D) and FDC NOTAMs.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AIM Paragraph 5-1-3: An integral part of the NOTAM System is the Notices to Airmen Publication (NTAP) published every four weeks. Data is included in this publication to reduce congestion on the telecommunications circuits and, therefore, is not available via Service A. Once published, the information is not provided during pilot weather briefings unless specifically requested by the pilot. This publication contains two sections. 1. The first section consists of notices that meet the criteria for NOTAM (D) and are expected to remain in effect for an extended period and FDC NOTAMs that are current at the time of publication. Occasionally, some NOTAM (L) and other unique information is included in this section when it will contribute to flight safety. 2. The second section contains special notices that are either too long or concern a wide or unspecified geographic area and are not suitable for inclusion in the first section. The content of these notices vary widely and there are no specific criteria for their inclusion, other than their enhancement of flight safety. 3. The number of the last FDC NOTAM included in the publication is noted on the first page to aid the user in updating the listing with any FDC NOTAMs which may have been issued between the cut-off date and the date the publication is received. All information contained will be carried until the information expires, is canceled, or in the case of permanent conditions, is published in other publications, such as the A/FD. 4. All new notices entered, excluding FDC NOTAMs, will be published only if the information is expected to remain in effect for at least 7 days after the effective date of the publication.


Question 29
(Refer to figure 31, illustration 1.) The relative bearing TO the station is

a. 045°.
b. 180°.
c. 315°.

You answered "315°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Since this is a fixed card ADF, the relative bearing is read in relation to the aircraft nose. In illustration 1, the relative bearing TO the station is 315 degrees. Note that 315 here is a RELATIVE bearing. Do not confuse this with a MAGNETIC bearing, which depends upon where the aircraft is pointed. In a fixed card ADF such as this, the top of the instrument always indicaes "N" no matter where the aircraft is heading. If the aircraft were heading south (180o) with the instrument as shown, the relative bearing would still be 315o, but now that MAGNETIC bearing would be 135o.


Question 30
Flight through a restricted area should not be accomplished unless the pilot has

a. filed an IFR flight plan.
b. received prior authorization from the controlling agency.
c. received prior permission from the commanding officer of the nearest military base.

You answered "received prior authorization from the controlling agency.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 3-4-3 states: Restricted Areas contain airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth within which the flight of aircraft, while not wholly prohibited, is subject to restrictions. Activities within these areas must be confined because of their nature or limitations imposed upon aircraft operations that are not a part of those activities or both. Restricted Areas denote the existence of unusual, often invisible, hazards to aircraft such as artillery firing, aerial gunnery, or guided missiles. Penetration of Restricted Areas without authorization from the using or controlling agency may be extremely hazardous to the aircraft and its occupants. Restricted Areas are published in the Federal Register and constitute FAR Part 73.


Question 31
(Refer to figure 17.) What wind is forecast for STL at 9,000 feet?

a. 230° magnetic at 25 knots.
b. 230° true at 32 knots.
c. 230° true at 25 knots.

You answered "230° true at 32 knots.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states:A 4-digit group shows wind direction, in reference to true north, and wind speed. The first two digits give direction in tens of degrees and the second two digits are the wind speed in knots. A 6-digit group includes forecast temperatures. In the STL forecast, the coded group for 9,000 feet is 2332+02. The wind is from 230 degrees at 32 knots and the temperature is plus 2 degrees Celsius. If a coded direction is more than "36," then the wind speed is 100 knots or more. Therefore, if the wind direction number is between 51 and 86, the wind speed will be over 100 knots. For example, the STL forecast for 39,000 feet is "731960." The wind direction is from 230 degrees (73-50=23) and the speed is 119 knots (100+19= 119). The temperature is minus 60 degrees Celsius.If the wind speed is forecast to be 200 knots or greater, the wind group is coded as 199 knots. For example, "7799" is decoded as 270 degrees at 199 knots or greater. When the forecast speed is less than 5 knots, the coded group is "9900" and read, "LIGHT AND VARIABLE."


Question 32
When telephoning a weather briefing facility for preflight weather information, pilots should state

a. whether they intend to fly VFR only.
b. that they possess a current pilot certificate.
c. the full name and address of the formation commander.

You answered "whether they intend to fly VFR only. ".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Tell the briefer whether you intend to fly VFR or IFR so they can provide the appropriate information.


Question 33
A third-class medical certificate was issued to a 19-year-old pilot on August 10, this year. To exercise the privileges of a recreational or private pilot certificate, the medical certificate will expire at midnight on

a. August 31, 2 years later.
b. August 10, 2 years later.
c. August 31, 3 years later.

You answered "August 31, 3 years later.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 61.23 states: " Duration of a medical certificate. " A third-class medical certificate for operations requiring a recreational pilot certificate, a private pilot certificate, a flight instructor certificate (when acting as pilot in command or a required pilot flight crewmember in operations other than glider or balloon), or a student pilot certificate issued -- i. Before September 16, 1996, expires at the end of the 24th month after the month of the date of examination shown on the certificate; or ii. On or after September 16, 1996, expires at the end of: " The 36th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has not reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of examination; or " The 24th month after the month of the date of the examination shown on the certificate if the person has reached his or her 40th birthday on or before the date of the examination.


Question 34
How should an aircraft preflight inspection be accomplished for the first flight of the day?

a. Any sequence as determined by the pilot-in-command.
b. Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.
c. Quick walk around with a check of gas and oil.

You answered "Thorough and systematic means recommended by the manufacturer.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C states:The preflight inspection of the airplane is one of the pilot's most important duties. A number of serious airplane accidents have been traced directly to poor preflight inspection practices. The preflight inspection should be a thorough and systematic means by which the pilot determines that the airplane is ready for safe flight. Most Aircraft Flight Manuals or Pilot's Operating Handbooks contain a section devoted to a systematic method of performing a preflight inspection that should be used by the pilot for guidance.


Question 35
What minimum radio equipment is required for VFR operation within Class B airspace?

a. Two-way radio communications equipment and a 4096-code transponder.
b. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.
c. Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, an encoding altimeter, and a VOR or TACAN receiver.

You answered "Two-way radio communications equipment, a 4096-code transponder, and an encoding altimeter.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAR 91.131 States that:(c) Communications and navigation equipment requirements. Unless otherwise authorized by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless that aircraft is equipped with -- ... (2) For all operations. An operable two-way radio capable of communications with ATC on appropriate frequencies for that Class B airspace area. (d) Transponder requirements. No person may operate an aircraft in a Class B airspace area unless the aircraft is equipped with the applicable operating transponder and automatic altitude reporting equipment specified in paragraph (a) of §91.215, except as provided in paragraph (d) of that section.


Question 36
A temperature inversion would most likely result in which weather condition?

a. An increase in temperature as altitude is increased.
b. Clouds with extensive vertical development above an inversion aloft.
c. Good visibility in the lower levels of the atmosphere and poor visibility above an inversion aloft.

The correct answer is: "An increase in temperature as altitude is increased."
Reference: AC 00-6A, states: Temperature normally decreases with increasing altitude throughout the troposphere. This decrease of temperature with altitude is defined as lapse rate. The average decrease of temperature - average lapse rate - in the troposphere is 2° C per 1,000 feet. But since this is an average, the exact value seldom exists. In fact, temperature sometimes increases with height through a layer. An increase in temperature with altitude is defined as a inversion, i.e., lapse rate is inverted.


Question 37
Each person operating an aircraft at a VFR cruising altitude shall maintain an odd-thousand plus 500-foot altitude while on a

a. magnetic heading of 0° through 179°.
b. magnetic course of 0° through 179°.
c. true course of 0° through 179°.

The correct answer is: "magnetic course of 0° through 179°."
Reference: When cruising (in cruise flight) on a magnetic course (note: magnetic course--not magnetic heading) of 0 degrees through 179 degrees VFR above 3000' AGL and below 18000' MSL, the pilot shall maintain an altitude of an odd thousand number of feet + 500 (i.e.: 3,500, 5,500, 7,500, etc.). Similarly, when flying on a magnetic course of 180 through 359 degrees at similar altitudes, the pilot shall maintain an altitude of an even thousand feet + 500 (i.e.: 4,500, 6,500, 8,500, etc) Remember: magnetic heading is the direction your aircraft is pointing with regards to magnetic north. This is not necessarily the same direction as where it is going, as wind may cause you to be flying with a correction. Magnetic course is where the airplane is actually going with respect to magnetic north.


Question 38
Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, what is the minimum safe altitude for a pilot to operate an aircraft anywhere?

a. An altitude of 500 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1,000 feet.
b. An altitude of 500 feet above the surface and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure.
c. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.

You answered "An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The key here is the term "anywhere," which is a direct reference to CFR 14 Part 91.119 (Minimum safe altitudes: General.): Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, no person may operate an aircraft below the following altitudes: a. Anywhere. An altitude allowing, if a power unit fails, an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface


Question 39
As standard operating practice, all inbound traffic to an airport without a control tower should continuously monitor the appropriate facility from a distance of

a. 25 miles.
b. 20 miles.
c. 10 miles.

You answered "10 miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-9 states: Pilots of inbound traffic should monitor and communicate as appropriate on the designated CTAF from 10 miles to landing. Pilots of departing aircraft should monitor/communicate on the appropriate frequency from start-up, during taxi, and until 10 miles from the airport unless the FARs or local procedures require otherwise. According to the legend, Currituck County Airport is non-towered and you should use 122.9 as the CTAF frequency.


Question 40
Who is responsible for ensuring appropriate entries are made in maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service?

a. Repair station.
b. Owner or operator.
c. Certified mechanic.

You answered "Owner or operator.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 91.405 states: Each owner or operator of an aircraft -- a. Shall have that aircraft inspected as prescribed in subpart E of this part and shall between required inspections, except as provided in paragraph (c) of this section, have discrepancies repaired as prescribed in part 43 of this chapter; b. Shall ensure that maintenance personnel make appropriate entries in the aircraft maintenance records indicating the aircraft has been approved for return to service


Question 41
(Refer to figure 48.) While on final approach to a runway equipped with a standard 2-bar VASI, the lights appear as shown by illustration D. This means that the aircraft is

a. on the glide slope.
b. below the glide slope.
c. above the glide slope.

You answered "below the glide slope.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Red over red on a two-bar VASI indicate that the aircraft is below the glideslope" Red over white, you're alright (on the glideslope)" White over White, you'll fly all night (too high) " Red over Red, you're dead (too low)


Question 42
(Refer to figure 2.) If an airplane weighs 3,300 pounds, what approximate weight would the airplane structure be required to support during a 30° banked turn while maintaining altitude?

a. 1,200 pounds.
b. 3,100 pounds.
c. 3,960 pounds.

The correct answer is: "3,960 pounds."
Reference: You don't need to even reference the figure to determine that the answer to this question must be 3,960 as both the 3,100 and 1,200 pound answers are less than the weight of the airplane. That is, if the airplane structure could only support 3,100 pounds and the airplane weighed 3,300 pounds, the wings would fall off while it was sitting on the ramp!. From the figure we see that a 30 degree level bank translates to a load factor (G force) of 1.154. Now, 1.154 * 3,300 is 3,808.2, not 3,960. The reason that the FAA seems to have offered 3,960 as the "approximate" answer is because 1.154 is approximately 1.2, and 1.2 * 3,300 is 3,960. Of course, a typical airplane can withstand far more than 1.2 times its 1G weight.


Question 43
When would a pilot be required to submit a detailed report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance?

a. Within 48 hours if requested by ATC.
b. Immediately.
c. Within 7 days.

The correct answer is: "Within 48 hours if requested by ATC."
Reference: Pilots need only submit a detailed, written report of an emergency which caused the pilot to deviate from an ATC clearance when requested by ATC. This report should be filed within 48 hours of the request. Some pilots, unfortunately, are hesitant to declare an emergency when circumstances dictate that they should because of a fear of the ensuing paperwork. In truth, the procedures are usually very streamlined, and often there is no paperwork at all.


Question 44
To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, the aircraft must have a

a. VOR receiver and DME.
b. 4096-code transponder.
c. VHF transmitter and receiver.

You answered "VHF transmitter and receiver.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: To use Very High Frequency / Direction Finding facilities for assistance in locating an aircraft's position, all that is necessary is for the aircraft to have VHF transmitter and receiver. A VHF/DF facility will attempt to locate the aircraft by "homing in" or triangulating the location from which a VHF (radio) broadcast is being made. While not as accurate as being able to determine an aircraft's location through a radar return (what a 4096-code transmitter would help with), when there is nothing else available and you are truly lost, VHF/DF may be your only choice. If you find yourself lost and in need of assistance, don't hesitate to confess your situation to ATC. They're there to help.


Question 45
What type of weather is occurring in the radar return?

a. Light to moderate rain.
b. Rain showers increasing in intensity.
c. Continuous rain.

The correct answer is: "Light to moderate rain."
Reference: AC 00-45, table 7-2 provides the legend for reading a Radar Summary Chart. The symbol 'R' indicates rain. A single contour line indicates the intensity of the precipitation is light to moderate. The intensity is obtained from the amount of energy returned to the radar from the target and is indicated on the chart by contours. Six precipitation intensity levels are reduced into three contour intervals. When determining intensity levels from this chart, it is recommended that the maximum possible intensity be used. To determine the actual maximum intensity level, the SD for that time period should be examined. It should also be noted that intensity is coded for frozen precipitation (i.e., snow or snow showers). This is due to the fact that the WSR-88D is much more powerful and sensitive than previous radars. Finally, it is very important to remember that the intensity trend is no longer coded on the radar summary chart.


Question 46
(Refer to figure 25) . Determine the magnetic course from Airpark East Airport (area 1) to Winnsboro Airport (area 2). Magnetic variation is 6°30'E.

a. 091°.
b. 075°.
c. 082°.

You answered "075°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Place a plotter on the chart, with the edge lined up on both Airpark East and Winnsboro, and read 082 true. Subtract the east variation of 6.5 degrees to determine a magnetic course of 075.5. The closest answer is 075 degrees.


Question 47
What force makes an airplane turn?

a. The vertical component of lift.
b. Centrifugal force.
c. The horizontal component of lift.

You answered "The horizontal component of lift.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23, chapter 1 states: With the wings level, lift acts directly opposite to gravity. However, as the airplane is banked, gravity still acts in a vertical plane, but lift will now act in an inclined plane. The force of lift can be resolved into two components, vertical and horizontal. During the turn entry, the vertical component of lift still opposes gravity, and the horizontal component of lift must overcome apparent centrifugal force. This horizontal component of lift pulls the airplane around the turn.


Question 48
If the aircraft's radio fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?

a. Flash the landing lights and cycle the landing gear while circling the airport.
b. Enter a crosswind leg and rock the wings.
c. Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.

You answered "Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from the tower.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-2-13 states: Transmitter and receiver inoperative: Remain outside or above the Class D surface area until the direction and flow of traffic has been determined; then, join the airport traffic pattern and maintain visual contact with the tower to receive light signals. Acknowledge light signals as noted above.


Question 49
When taking off or landing at an airport where heavy aircraft are operating, one should be particularly alert to the hazards of wingtip vortices because this turbulence tends to

a. sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
b. rise from a crossing runway into the takeoff or landing path.
c. rise into the traffic pattern area surrounding the airport.

You answered "sink into the flightpath of aircraft operating below the aircraft generating the turbulence.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 9 states:An aircraft receives its lift by accelerating a mass of air downward. Thus, whenever the wings are providing lift, air is forced downward under the wings generating rotary motions or vortices off the wing tips. When the landing gear bears the entire weight of the aircraft, no wing tip vortices develop. But the instant the pilot "hauls back" on the controls, these vortices begin. These vortices continue throughout the flight and until the craft again settles firmly on its landing gear. These vortices spread downward and outward from the flight path. They also drift with the wind. Strength of the vortices is proportional to the weight of the aircraft as well as other factors. Therefore, wake turbulence is more intense behind large, transport category aircraft than behind small aircraft. Generally, it is a problem only when following the larger aircraft.


Question 50
(Refer to figure 22.) What is the estimated time en route from Mercer County Regional Airport (area 3) to Minot International (area 1)? The wind is from 330° at 25 knots and the true airspeed is 100 knots. Add 3-1/2 minutes for departure and climb-out.

a. 48 minutes.
b. 44 minutes.
c. 52 minutes.

You answered "48 minutes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The distance between Mercer County and Minot is 59 NM. This can be determined by measuring the distance between airport centers with a ruler and then comparing this to the distance key. However, to know the groundspeed is a bit harder and relies on us determining the effect of wind. To determine groundspeed, we use our E6B calculator. 1. Determine the local magnetic variation. Looking on the right side of the chart, we see that this is 9o East.2. Determine the magnetic course from Mercer to Minot. Use a straightedge to draw a line from the center of one airport to the center of the other. Shift this line over to the VOR compass rose over Minot airport (only a small shift is required). Because the northern half of this VOR compass is hidden from view, let's read the reciprocal magnetic heading - 176o. Adding 180o to this to get the proper magnetic course from Mercer to Minot, we see that the magnetic course from Mercert to Minot is 356 degrees. 3. We need to convert our magnetic course to a true one. MC = TC + VAR, so TC = MC - VAR. Remember that "East is Least.", so we "subtract" (-9) degrees (negative 9 degrees) from 356 degrees (in other words we add 9 degrees) to get 005 degree True Course. 4. Now we turn to the E6B. o Put the True Course of 005o at the top. o Adjust the slider so that our True Airspeed of 100 knots is indicated at the center. o Draw a dot 25 knots below the 100 center dot to correspond to the wind speed. o Rotate the dial so that our wind direction of 330o is indicated at the top. o Read the resulting groundspeed - we see that is is 81 knots o Although not needed for this question, we can also see from the E6B that we need to fly 10o left correction (wind correction angle, WCA) Now we have a groundspeed of 81 knots for 59 nm. Remember the formula Distance = Rate x Time The time required = 59 nm x (60 minutes / 81 nm) = 43.7 minutes. Adding 3.5 minutes for departure and climb-out, we get a total of 47.2 minutes. The closest FAA answer to this is 48 minutes. The small difference is caused by slight differences in measurement.


Question 51
For VFR flight operations above 10,000 feet MSL and more than 1,200 feet AGL, the minimum horizontal distance from clouds required is

a. 1 mile.
b. 2,000 feet.
c. 1,000 feet.

The correct answer is: "1 mile."
Reference: In either class E or G airspace in day or night at altitudes above 10,000 feet MSL and 1,200 feet AGL the minimum distance from clouds is 1 statute mile horizontally.


Question 52
During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft?

a. The other aircraft is flying away from you.
b. The other aircraft is approaching head-on.
c. The other aircraft is crossing to the left.

You answered "The other aircraft is approaching head-on.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The standard instruments required for instrument flight under 14 CFR part 91 are a valuable asset for aircraft control at night. An anti-collision light system, including a flashing or rotating beacon and position lights, is required airplane equipment. Airplane position lights are arranged similar to those of boats and ships. A red light is positioned on the left wingtip, a green light on the right wingtip, and a white light on the tail. Were the airplane flying away from you, you'd see red, green, and white lights at the same altitude. Were the aircraft crossing to the left, you'd see a red wing light (and possibly a white tail light). FAA-H-8083-3, Chapter 10


Question 53
An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying north in a calm wind: "TRAFFIC 9 O'CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND..." Where should the pilot look for this traffic?

a. West.
b. South.
c. North.

You answered "West.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-14 tells us traffic information will be given in this format: a. Azimuth from the aircraft in terms of the 12 hour clock, or b. When rapidly maneuvering civil test or military aircraft prevent accurate issuance of traffic as in (a) above, specify the direction from an aircraft's position in terms of the eight cardinal compass points (N, NE, E, SE, S, SW, W, NW). This method shall be terminated at the pilot's request. c. Distance from the aircraft in nautical miles; d. Direction in which the target is proceeding; and e. Type of aircraft and altitude if known.Superimpose an (imaginary) analog clock face onto the pilot's heading indicator / directional compass, with "12 o'clock" on the analog clock put on the aircraft's heading, in this case 360 ("north"). Find 9 o'clock on the analog clock face and read the heading indicator value below. The pilot should look for the traffic to the west (270 degrees).


Question 54
(Refer to figure 23.) Determine the estimated time en route for a flight from Priest River Airport (area 1) to Shoshone County Airport (area 3). The wind is from 030 at 12 knots and the true airspeed is 95 knots. Add 2 minutes for climb-out.

a. 31 minutes.
b. 27 minutes.
c. 29 minutes.

You answered "31 minutes.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The distance between Priest River and Shoshone Co. is 48 NM. This can be determined by measuring the distance between airport centers with a ruler and then comparing this to the distance key. However, to know the groundspeed is a bit harder and relies on us determining the effect of wind. To determine groundspeed, we use our E6B calculator. #1 Determine the local magnetic variation. Looking on the right side of the chart, we see that this is 18o East. #2 Determine the magnetic course from Priest River to Shoshone Co. Use a straightedge to draw a line from the center of one airport to the center of the other. Let's read the true heading - 150o. #3 We need to convert our true course to a magnetic course. TC - East VAR= MC. Remember that "East is Least.", so we "subtract" 18o from 150o to get 132o Magnetic Course. #4 Now we turn to the E6B.: a) Put the Wind Direction at the top (030) at the top. b) Draw a dot to represent teh wind 12 knots down from the TAS circle. c) Put the Course of 132o at the top. d) Adjust the slider so that our True Airspeed of 95 knots is indicated at the center. e) Read the resulting groundspeed - we see that is is 99 knots f) The E-6B shows us a groundspeed of 99 knots. 48 NM at 99 knots takes 29 minutes. Add the 2 minutes for departure and climb-out for a total time of 31 minutes. The E-6B shows us a groundspeed of 99 knots. 48 NM at 99 knots takes 29 minutes. Add the 2 minutes for departure and climb-out for a total time of 31 minutes.


Question 55
During operations at altitudes of more than 1,200 feet AGL and at or above 10,000 feet MSL, the minimum distance above clouds requirement for VFR flight is

a. 1,500 feet.
b. 1,000 feet.
c. 500 feet.


The correct answer is: "1,500 feet."
Reference: This is kind of a misleading question, as it relies upon the assumption that there is no class B airspace above 10,000 feet MSL. Were there such airspace, the minimum distance clouds requirement for VFR flight would be "clear of clouds" as this is all that is required in Class B airspace. From the answer choices provided (and from the "more than 1,200 feet AGL, above 10,000 feet MSL" tone, which is typically associated with Class E and Class G airspaces), we can assume that the question is not asking about class B airspace. From CFR 14 Part 91.155 we see that in both Class E and Class G airspace, the minimum above clouds requirement for VFR flight is 1,000 feet above (and 1,000 feet below, and 1 sm horizontally).


Question 56
As Pilot in Command of an aircraft, under which situation can you deviate from an ATC clearance?

a. When operating in Class A airspace at night.
b. If an ATC clearance is not understood and in VFR conditions.
c. In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.

You answered "In response to a traffic alert and collision avoidance system resolution advisory.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Each pilot in command who deviates from a rule under paragraph (b) of this section shall, upon the request of the Administrator, send a written report of that deviation to the Administrator.


Question 57
(Refer to figure 4.) Which color identifies the normal flap operating range?

a. The white arc.
b. The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc.
c. The green arc.

You answered "The white arc.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The white arc identifies the normal flap operating range. Your instructor may remind you to "wait until the airspeed is in the white arc" before you lower flaps.The lower limit of the white arc to the upper limit of the green arc has no particular meaning, but indicates speeds ranging from the power-off stalling speed (with wing flaps and gear in a landing configuration) to maximum structural cruising speed. The green arc represents the normal operating range - a range from the power-off stall speed in a specified configuration (VS1) to the maximum structural cruising speed (VNO).


Question 58
Basic radar service in the terminal radar program is best described as

a. wind-shear warning at participating airports.
b. mandatory radar service provided by the Automated Radar Terminal System (ARTS) program.
c. safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.

You answered "safety alerts, traffic advisories, and limited vectoring to VFR aircraft.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-17 states: Basic Radar Service: In addition to the use of radar for the control of IFR aircraft, all commissioned radar facilities provide the following basic radar services for VFR aircraft: a. Safety alerts. b. Traffic advisories. c. Limited radar vectoring (on a workload permitting basis). d. Sequencing at locations where procedures have been established for this purpose and/or when covered by a Letter of Agreement.


Question 59
The final authority as to the operation of an aircraft is the

a. Federal Aviation Administration.
b. aircraft manufacturer.
c. pilot in command.

You answered "pilot in command.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.3 states: (a) The pilot in command of an aircraft is directly responsible for, and is the final authority as to, the operation of that aircraft.


Question 60
(Refer to figure 27, area 6.) The airspace overlying and within 5 miles of Barnes County Airport is

a. Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL.
b. Class D airspace from the surface to the floor of the overlying Class E airspace.
c. Class E airspace from the surface to 1,200 feet MSL.

The correct answer is: "Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL."
Reference: The Sectional Chart Legend shows this as Class G airspace from the surface to 700 feet AGL. Above 700 feet AGL is Class E airspace.


Question 61
With certain exceptions, all aircraft within 30 miles of a Class B primary airport from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL must be equipped with

a. an operable VOR or TACAN receiver and an ADF receiver.
b. an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability.
c. instruments and equipment required for IFR operations.

The correct answer is: "an operable transponder having either Mode S or 4096-code capability with Mode C automatic altitude reporting capability."
Reference: FAR 91.215 states: ... (b) All airspace. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified by ATC, or a Mode S capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified by ATC and intermode and Mode S interrogations in accordance with the applicable provisions specified in TSO C-112, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information in 100-foot increments. This requirement applies to ... (2) All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL; Where "appendix D section 1 of this part" effectively lists all class B airports. On sectional charts, you will see a "mode C veil" indicating the points inside of which your Mode C transponder must be turned on (altitude). Of course, in the general case, it is best to have a mode C transponder turned to the altitude setting whenever the aircraft is airborne.


Question 62
Altimeter 3 indicates

a. 9,500 feet.
b. 10,950 feet.
c. 15,940 feet.

The correct answer is: "9,500 feet."
Reference: The smallest hand (blue) is just below the 1 (indicating less than 10,000 feet), the short fat hand (red) is between the 9 and 0 (indicating between 9,000 and 10,000 feet), the long hand (green) is at 5 (indicating 500 feet). Add 9,000, and 500 to arrive at 9,500 feet.


Question 63
After landing at a tower-controlled airport, when should the pilot contact ground control?

a. When advised by the tower to do so.
b. After reaching a taxiway that leads directly to the parking area.
c. Prior to turning off the runway.

You answered "When advised by the tower to do so.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-3-20 states: Stop the aircraft after clearing the runway if instructions have not been received from ATC. Immediately change to ground control frequency when advised by the tower and obtain a taxi clearance.


Question 64
What minimum pilot certification is required for operation within Class B airspace?

a. Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.
b. Recreational Pilot Certificate.
c. Private Pilot Certificate with an instrument rating.

You answered "Private Pilot Certificate or Student Pilot Certificate with appropriate logbook endorsements.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.131 states: "(b) Pilot requirements. (1) No person may take off or land a civil aircraft at an airport within a Class B airspace area or operate a civil aircraft within a Class B airspace area unless -- i. The pilot in command holds at least a private pilot certificate; or ii. The aircraft is operated by a student pilot or recreational pilot who seeks private pilot certification and has met the requirements of §61.95 of this chapter."


Question 65
An operable 4096-code transponder with an encoding altimeter is required in which airspace?

a. Class D and Class G (below 10,000 feet MSL).
b. Class D and Class E (below 10,000 feet MSL).
c. Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.

You answered "Class A, Class B (and within 30 miles of the Class B primary airport), and Class C.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.215 states: (b) All airspace. Unless otherwise authorized or directed by ATC, no person may operate an aircraft in the airspace described in paragraphs (b)(1) through (b)(5) of this section, unless that aircraft is equipped with an operable coded radar beacon transponder having either Mode 3/A 4096 code capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified by ATC, or a Mode S capability, replying to Mode 3/A interrogations with the code specified by ATC and intermode and Mode S interrogations in accordance with the applicable provisions specified in TSO C-112, and that aircraft is equipped with automatic pressure altitude reporting equipment having a Mode C capability that automatically replies to Mode C interrogations by transmitting pressure altitude information in 100-foot increments. This requirement applies -- 1. All aircraft. In Class A, Class B, and Class C airspace areas; 2. All aircraft. In all airspace within 30 nautical miles of an airport listed in appendix D, section 1 of this part from the surface upward to 10,000 feet MSL.


Question 66
What action should the pilots of a glider and an airplane take if on a head-on collision course?

a. Both pilots should give way to the right.
b. The airplane pilot should give way to the left.
c. The glider pilot should give way to the right.

You answered "Both pilots should give way to the right.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Even though FAR 91.113 states: (d)(2) (when converging) A glider has the right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft; (e) Approaching head-on. When aircraft are approaching each other head-on, or nearly so, each pilot of each aircraft shall alter course to the right.


Question 67
To meet the recency of experience requirements to act as pilot in command carrying passengers at night, a pilot must have made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop within the preceding 90 days in

a. the same category and class of aircraft to be used.
b. the same type of aircraft to be used.
c. any aircraft.

You answered "the same category and class of aircraft to be used.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: From FAR 61.57: b) Night takeoff and landing experience. (1) Except as provided in paragraph (e) of this section, no person may act as pilot in command of an aircraft carrying passengers during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise, unless within the preceding 90 days that person has made at least three takeoffs and three landings to a full stop during the period beginning 1 hour after sunset and ending 1 hour before sunrise and -- i. That person acted as sole manipulator of the flight controls; and ii. The required takeoffs and landings were performed in an aircraft of the same category, class, and type (if a type rating is required). Despite the "and type (if a type rating is required)", "category and class" is the best answer.


Question 68
If the grade of fuel used in an aircraft engine is lower than specified for the engine, it will most likely cause

a. a mixture of fuel and air that is not uniform in all cylinders.
b. lower cylinder head temperatures.
c. detonation.

You answered "detonation.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " If a lower grade than recommended fuel is used, detonation, the exploding (rather than burning) of unburned charges in the cylinders may occur (along with other negative things, such as the burning of spark plugs, excessive engine temperatures, etc). " The "not uniform" answer is incorrect because the mixture is determined by the carburetor and will be uniform if the carburetor is operating properly. The cylinder head temperatures will likely be higher, not lower, if a lower grade of fuel is used.


Question 69
What minimum flight visibility is required for VFR flight operations on an airway below 10,000 feet MSL?

a. 1 mile.
b. 4 miles.
c. 3 miles.

You answered "3 miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: CFR 14 Part 91.155 requires the following weather for this operation: Day - Day visibility - 3 statute miles, Cloud clearance - 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontal.


Question 70
With respect to passengers, what obligation, if any, does a pilot in command have concerning the use of safety belts?

a. The pilot in command has no obligation in regard to passengers' use of safety belts.
b. The pilot in command must instruct the passengers to keep their safety belts fastened for the entire flight.
c. The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.

You answered "The pilot in command must brief the passengers on the use of safety belts and notify them to fasten their safety belts during taxi, takeoff, and landing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAR Sec. 91.107 - Use of safety belts, shoulder harnesses, and child restraint systems: (1) No pilot may take off a U.S.-registered civil aircraft (except a free balloon that incorporates a basket or gondola, or an airship type certificated before November 2, 1987) unless the pilot in command of that aircraft ensures that each person on board is briefed on how to fasten and unfasten that person's safety belt and, if installed, shoulder harness.


Question 71
(Refer to figure 24.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set to navigate direct from Hampton Varnville Airport (area 1) to Savannah VORTAC (area 3)?

a. 183°.
b. 003°.
c. 200°.

You answered "183°.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Place a straightedge from Hampton Varnville Airport to the Savannah VORTAC. Reading the resulting value from the Savannah compass rose, we see we are inbound on the Savannah 003 radial. However, since we are navigating TO the station, we set the OBS to the reciprocal of this, or 183. We are flying a southerly heading TO the VORTAC, so the OBS should be set TO a southerly heading.


Question 72
(Refer to figure 9, area A.) How should the flight controls be held while taxiing a tricycle-gear equipped airplane into a left quartering headwind?

a. Left aileron up, elevator down.
b. Left aileron down, elevator neutral.
c. Left aileron up, elevator neutral.

You answered "Left aileron up, elevator neutral.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The presence of moderate to strong headwinds and/or a strong propeller slipstream makes the use of the elevator necessary to maintain control of the pitch attitude while taxiing. This becomes apparent when considering the lifting action that may be created on the horizontal tail surfaces by either of those two factors. The elevator control in nosewheel type airplanes should be held in the neutral position. When taxiing in a crosswind, the wing on the upwind side usually will tend to be lifted by the wind unless the aileron control is held in that direction (upwind aileron UP). Moving the aileron into the UP position reduces the effect of wind striking that wing, thus reducing the lifting action. This control movement will also cause the opposite aileron to be placed in the down position, thus creating drag and possibly some lift on the downwind wing

Question 73
(Refer to figure 6.) To receive accurate indications during flight from a heading indicator, the instrument must be

a. periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses.
b. calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals.
c. set prior to flight on a known heading.

The correct answer is: "periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses."
Reference: The heading indicator must be periodically realigned with the magnetic compass. While this should be done prior to flight on a known heading, "periodically realigned with the magnetic compass as the gyro precesses" is the best answer because it imports the notion that such realignment must be done periodically. "Calibrated on a compass rose at regular intervals" is simply incorrect.


Question 74
What is the relationship of lift, drag, thrust, and weight when the airplane is in straight-and-level flight?

a. Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.
b. Lift and weight equal thrust and drag.
c. Lift, drag, and weight equal thrust.

You answered "Lift equals weight and thrust equals drag.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: This question probably should be corrected (by the FAA) to read ".. when the airplane is in straight and level UNACCELERATED flight." In straight and level unaccelerated flight, lift equals weight and thrust equals drag. The upward force of lift equals the downward force of weight, and the forward force of thrust equals the rearward force of drag. Don't be confused by this. "Thrust equals drag" does not mean that the airplane is not moving. It means that the airplane is not accelerating/decelerating.


Question 75
(Refer to figure 23, area 2; and figure 32.) At Coeur D'Alene , which frequency should be used as a Common Traffic Advisory Frequency (CTAF) to self-announce position and intentions?

a. 122.1/108.8 MHz.
b. 122.05 MHz.
c. 122.8 MHz.

You answered "122.8 MHz.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The lower right portion of the airport information block on the Sectional Chart shows the CTAF of 122.8. This can also be found in the Communications section of the Airport / Facility Directory Excerpt in Figure 32.


Question 76
A recreational or private pilot acting as pilot in command, or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember, must have in his or her personal possession or readily accessible in the aircraft a current

a. endorsement on the pilot certificate to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.
b. medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.
c. logbook endorsement to show that a flight review has been satisfactorily accomplished.

You answered "medical certificate if required and an appropriate pilot certificate.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: 14 CFR Part 61.3 states: (a) Pilot certificate. A person may not act as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of a civil aircraft of U.S. registry, unless that person has a valid pilot certificate or special purpose pilot authorization issued under this part in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that pilot certificate or authorization. However, when the aircraft is operated within a foreign country, a current pilot license issued by the country in which the aircraft is operated may be used. (c) Medical certificate. 1. Except as provided for in paragraph (c)(2) of this section, a person may not act as pilot in command or in any other capacity as a required pilot flight crewmember of an aircraft, under a certificate issued to that person under this part, unless that person has a current and appropriate medical certificate that has been issued under part 67 of this chapter, or other documentation acceptable to the Administrator, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft. 2. A person is not required to meet the requirements of paragraph (c)(1) of this section if that person -- i. Is exercising the privileges of a student pilot certificate while seeking a pilot certificate with a glider category rating or balloon class rating; ii. Is holding a pilot certificate with a balloon class rating and is piloting or providing training in a balloon as appropriate; iii. Is holding a pilot certificate or a flight instructor certificate with a glider category rating, and is piloting or providing training in a glider, as appropriate; iv. Except as provided in paragraph (c)(2)(iii) of this section, is exercising the privileges of a flight instructor certificate, provided the person is not acting as pilot in command or as a required pilot flight crewmember; v. Is exercising the privileges of a ground instructor certificate; vi. Is operating an aircraft within a foreign country using a pilot license issued by that country and possesses evidence of current medical qualification for that license; or vii. Is operating an aircraft with a U.S. pilot certificate, issued on the basis of a foreign pilot license, issued under §61.75 of this part, and holds a current medical certificate issued by the foreign country that issued the foreign pilot license, which is in that person's physical possession or readily accessible in the aircraft when exercising the privileges of that airman certificate.


Question 77
Under what condition, if any, may pilots fly through a restricted area?

a. With the controlling agency's authorization.
b. When flying on airways with an ATC clearance.
c. Regulations do not allow this.

You answered "With the controlling agency's authorization.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: You may fly through a restricted area only with the controlling agency's authorization. An area that you can not fly through at all is known as a Prohibited, not restricted, area. The notion that you can fly through restricted airspace while on an airway with an ATC clearance is a common misconception. This is simply not true. Please note: many restricted areas operate part-time only. It is common practice to ask an approach controller whether a given restricted area is currently hot (active) or cold (inactive). Restricted areas often also apply to certain altitudes--for example, the surface to 4,000 feet for certain types of military activities.


Question 78
(Refer to figure 15.) During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC?

a. Greater than 6 statute miles.
b. Possibly 6 statute miles.
c. Not forecasted.

You answered "Greater than 6 statute miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: In the last line of the KOKC section of figure 15, we see "BECMG 0608 21015KT P6SM SCT040." " 0608 means "from 0600Z to 0800Z" " P6SM means "greater than 6 statute miles visibility." In decoding Terminal Aerodrome Forecasts (TAFS), the expected prevailing visibility is forecast in statute miles and fractions of statute miles followed by SM to note the units of measure. Statute miles followed by fractions of statute miles are separated with a space, for example, 1 1/2SM. Forecast visibility greater than 6 statute miles is indicated by coding P6SM. Directional or variable visibility is not forecasted and the visibility group is omitted if missing. Examples: " 1/2SM - Visibility one-half statute mile " 2 1/4SM - Visibility two and one-quarter statute miles " 5SM - Visibility five statute miles " P6SM - Visibility more than six statute miles


Question 79
When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying

a. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.
b. below the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.
c. above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing before the large aircraft's touchdown point.

You answered "above the large aircraft's final approach path and landing beyond the large aircraft's touchdown point.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 9 states: When using the same runway as a heavier aircraft: (1) if landing behind another aircraft, keep your approach above his approach and keep your touchdown beyond the point where his nose wheel touched the runway.


Question 80
A certificated private pilot may not act as pilot in command of an aircraft towing a glider unless there is entered in the pilot's logbook a minimum of

a. 100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
b. 200 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.
c. 100 hours of pilot flight time in any aircraft, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.

You answered "100 hours of pilot-in-command time in the aircraft category, class, and type, if required, that the pilot is using to tow a glider.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Towing a glider is a dangerous undertaking. 100 hours PIC experience in the same category, class and type (if a type rating required) of aircraft to be used is required before a given pilot can tow gliders.Remember: Century Glider. (Century = 100). Think that "any aircraft" (from incorrect answer "C") could potentially refer to a glider or hot air balloon, so this would not be a reasonable pre-requisite for glider towing (in airplanes). Also, "pilot flight time" is ambiguous. Note: even though this question deals with gliders, it is included in airplane test banks, as it's relevance is to airplane pilots.


Question 81
What is the minimum visibility for a pilot to receive a land and hold short (LAHSO) clearance?

a. 3 nautical miles
b. 3 statute miles.
c. 1 statute mile.

You answered "3 statute miles.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: First off, recall that ground visibilities are, for the purposes of VFR flight, given in statute, not nautical miles. Per AIM 4-3-11, the minimum visibility to receive a LAHSO clearance is 3 statute miles (and 1000 foot ceiling). It would seem that the goal of the regulation authors in this regard was to ensure at least basic VFR weather conditions for LAHSO operations.


Question 82
(Refer to figure 63.) In flying the rectangular course, which would describe the proper angle of bank?

a. Corner 1 shallow to medium, corner 2 medium to steep, corner 3 steep to medium, and corner 4 medium to shallow.
b. Corner 1 shallow, corner 2 medium, corner 3 steep, and corner 4 shallow.
c. Corner 1 shallow, corner 2 medium to steep, corner 3 steep, and corner 4 medium to shallow.

The correct answer is: "Corner 1 shallow to medium, corner 2 medium to steep, corner 3 steep to medium, and corner 4 medium to shallow."
Reference: In flying the rectangular course, the proper angle of bank is at Corner 1 shallow to medium, corner 2 medium to steep, corner 3 steep to medium, and corner 4 medium to shallow.


Question 83
One purpose of the dual ignition system on an aircraft engine is to provide for

a. uniform heat distribution.
b. balanced cylinder head pressure.
c. improved engine performance.

You answered "improved engine performance.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Even if you did not know the correct answer to this one, it should be possible to deduce it by eliminating the two incorrect ones. A dual ignition system--that is, two magnetos so that there are two spark plugs in each ignition chamber, does not affect "uniform heat distribution", as this simply has no effective bearing on the engine's heat distribution. Similarly, you may recognize that dual magnetos have no effect on "balanced cylinder head pressure." Recall that when you do an engine run-up, you typically shut down one magneto at a time and note a decrease in engine performance. The dual ignition system of an aircraft engine, therefore, improves engine performance.


Question 84
GIVEN: WEIGHT ARM MOMENT (LB) (IN) (LB-IN) Empty weight 1,495.0 101.4 151,593.0 Pilot and passengers 380.0 64.0 Fuel (30 gal usable no reserve) 96.0 The CG is located how far aft of datum?

a. CG 94.01.
b. CG 92.44.
c. CG 119.8.

You answered "CG 94.01.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: First, determine the weight of the fuel onboard. 30 gallons of fuel * 6 lb / gallon = 180 lbs. Next, compute the moments for both the (pilot and passengers) and the fuel by multiplying their weights by their arms." Pilot and Passengers: 380 lb * 64 inches = 24320 lb inches. " Fuel: 180 lb * 96 inches = 17280 lb inches. Next, compute the total weight and total moments: " Total weight = 1495 lb + 380 lb + 180 lb = 2055 lb " Total moment = 151593 + 24320 + 17280 = 193193 lb-inches Finally, divide the total moment by the total weight to get the center of gravity. 193193 lb-inches / 2055 lbs = approximately 94.01 (any inaccuracy due to rounding, etc). Hence 94.01 is the right answer. It is important to remember that the "datum" can be located anywhere--at the nose of the airplane, at the firewall, or even an imaginary point three miles ahead of the airplane! While usually specified by the manufacturer, the actual location of the datum is just a tool of mathematical convenience (though, of course, by seeing that the pilots and baggage sit 64 inches from the datum plane, it might not be too far fetched to assume that the datum in this example is the firewall).


Question 85
If a flight is made from an area of high pressure into an area of lower pressure without the altimeter setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate

a. the actual altitude above sea level.
b. lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
c. higher than the actual altitude above sea level.

The correct answer is: "higher than the actual altitude above sea level."
Reference: AC 00-6A, Chapter 3 states: In order to ensure that your altimeter reading is compatible with altimeter readings of other aircraft in your vicinity, keep your altimeter setting current. Adjust it frequently in flight to the altimeter setting reported by the nearest tower or weather reporting station. From high to low look out below!


Question 86
What is the one common factor which affects most preventable accidents?

a. Mechanical malfunction.
b. Structural failure.
c. Human error.

You answered "Human error.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Looking through the NTSB accident database, you will find that human error is to blame in the majority of preventable accidents. Sure, the other two factors (from the incorrect answers) do occur as well. In this question, the FAA is trying to teach and remind you of this fact more than anything else.


Question 87
FAA advisory circulars containing subject matter specifically related to Air Traffic Control and General Operations are issued under which subject number?

a. 90.
b. 60.
c. 70.

You answered "90.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-2.11 appendix 1 states: The advisory circular numbers relate to the FAR subchapter titles and correspond to the Parts, and when appropriate, to the specific sections of the Federal Aviation Regulations. Subject: " 90 - Air Traffic and General Operating Rules " 91 - General Operating and Flight Rules" 93 - Special Air Traffic Rules and Airport Traffic Patterns " 95 - IFR Altitudes " 97 - Standard Instrument Approach Procedures " 99 - Security Control of Air Traffic " 101 - Moored Balloons, Kites, Unmanned Rockets and Unmanned Free Balloons " 103 - Ultralight Vehicles " 105 - Parachute Jumping " 107 - Airport Security " 108 - Airplane Operators Security " 109 - Indirect Air Carrier Security


Question 88
(Refer to figure 25.) On what course should the VOR receiver (OBS) be set in order to navigate direct from Majors Airport (area 1) to Quitman VORTAC (area 2)?

a. 281°.
b. 101°.
c. 108°.

The correct answer is: "101°."
Reference: Place a plotter on the chart with the edge lined up on the center of the Majors airport and the Quitman VORTAC (blue line). The edge passes through the 281 radial from the Quitman VORTAC. The reciprocal of 101 will be the course to set in the OBS (C101 TO).


Question 89
Which conditions result in the formation of frost?

a. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.
b. The temperature of the surrounding air is at or below freezing when small drops of moisture fall on the collecting surface.
c. The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below freezing when small droplets of moisture fall on the surface.

You answered "The temperature of the collecting surface is at or below the dewpoint of the adjacent air and the dewpoint is below freezing.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6 states:During clear nights with little or no wind, vegetation, often cools by radiation to a temperature at or below the dew point of the adjacent air. Moisture then collects on the leaves just as it does on a pitcher of ice water in a warm room. Heavy dew often collects on grass and plants when none collects on pavements or large solid objects. These more massive objects absorb abundant heat during the day, lose it slowly during the night, and cool below the dew point only in rather extreme cases.Frost forms in much the same way as dew. The difference is that the dew point of surrounding air must be colder than freezing. Water vapor then sublimates directly as ice crystals or frost rather than condensing as dew. Sometimes dew forms and later freezes; however, frozen dew is easily distinguished from frost. Frozen dew is hard and transparent while frost is white and opaque.


Question 90
During departure, when visual separation is employed by Air Traffic Control (ATC), traffic is no longer a factor when

a. the other aircraft turns away or is on a diverging course.
b. visual contact with the other aircraft is lost.
c. the other aircraft is passed.

The correct answer is: "the other aircraft turns away or is on a diverging course."
Reference: Visual separation is a means employed by ATC to separate aircraft in terminal areas and en route airspace in the NAS. There are two methods employed to effect this separation: 1. The tower controller sees the aircraft involved and issues instructions, as necessary, to ensure that the aircraft avoid each other. 2. A pilot sees the other aircraft involved and upon instructions from the controller provides separation by maneuvering the aircraft to avoid it. When pilots accept responsibility to maintain visual separation, they must maintain constant visual surveillance and not pass the other aircraft until it is no longer a factor. Traffic is no longer a factor when during approach phase the other aircraft is in the landing phase of flight or executes a missed approach; and during departure or en route, when the other aircraft turns away or is on a diverging course.


Question 91
The best method to use when looking for other traffic at night is to

a. look to the side of the object and scan rapidly.
b. scan the visual field very rapidly.
c. look to the side of the object and scan slowly.

You answered "look to the side of the object and scan slowly.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: FAA-H-8083-3, Chapter 10 states: The fact that the rods are distributed in a band around the cones and do not lie directly behind the pupils makes off-center viewing (looking to one side of an object) important during night flight. During daylight, an object can be seen best by looking directly at it, but at night a scanning procedure to permit off-center viewing of the object is more effective. Therefore, the pilot should consciously practice this scanning procedure to improve night vision.


Question 92
(Refer to figure 8.) Determine the pressure altitude with an indicated altitude of 1,380 feet MSL with an altimeter setting of 28.22 at standard temperature.

a. 2,991 feet MSL.
b. 3,010 feet MSL.
c. 2,913 feet MSL.

You answered "2,991 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: " Along the right side of Figure 8, read the Pressure Altitude Conversion Factors of 1,630' feet at 28.20 and 1,533' at 28.30. " Interpolate between them to determine 1610.6 feet. (Area 1) " Add 1610.6 to 1380 (indicated altitude) to determine 2990.6 feet. (Area 2)


Question 93
When converting from true course to magnetic heading, a pilot should

a. subtract easterly variation and right wind correction angle.
b. subtract westerly variation and add right wind correction angle.
c. add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle.

You answered "add westerly variation and subtract left wind correction angle. ".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 61-23C, Chapter 8 states:Because courses are measured in reference to geographical meridians which point toward true north, and these courses are maintained by reference to the compass which points along a magnetic meridian in the general direction of magnetic north, the true direction must be converted into magnetic direction for the purpose of flight. This conversion is made by adding or subtracting the variation which is indicated by the nearest isogonic line on the chart. The true heading, when corrected for variation, is known as magnetic heading. If the variation is shown as "9° E," this means that magnetic north is 9° east of true north. If a true heading of 360° is to be flown, 9° must be subtracted from 360°, which results in a magnetic heading of 351°. To fly east, a magnetic heading of 081° (090° - 9°) would be flown. To fly south, the magnetic heading would be 171° (180° - 9°). To fly west, it would be 261° (270° - 9°). To fly a true heading of 060°, a magnetic heading of 051° (060° - 9°) would be flown. Remember, to convert true course or heading to magnetic course or heading, note the variation shown by the nearest isogonic line. If variation is west, add; if east, subtract. One method for remembering whether to add or subtract variation is the phrase "east is least (subtract) and west is best (add)." The wind correction angle is even easier. If you need to correct left, you would subtract the amount of degrees required to correct for the wind drift.


Question 94
(Refer to figure 24, area 3.) What is the height of the lighted obstacle approximately 6 nautical miles southwest of Savannah International?

a. 1,531 feet AGL.
b. 1,500 feet MSL.
c. 1,549 feet MSL.

You answered "1,549 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The obstacle charted 6nm southwest of Savannah International is at 1549MSL/1534AGL.


Question 95
Which weather conditions should be expected beneath a low-level temperature inversion layer when the relative humidity is high?

a. Turbulent air, poor visibility, fog, low stratus type clouds, and showery precipitation.
b. Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.
c. Light wind shear, poor visibility, haze, and light rain.

You answered "Smooth air, poor visibility, fog, haze, or low clouds.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-6A states: A ground based inversion favors poor visibility by trapping fog, smoke, and other restrictions into low levels of the atmosphere. The wind shear and turbulence would be present just above the inversion, not beneath it.


Question 96
Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at

a. twice the length of the wingspan above the surface.
b. less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.
c. a higher-than-normal angle of attack.

You answered "less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Floating caused by the phenomenon of ground effect will be most realized during an approach to land when at less than the length of the wingspan above the surface.


Question 97
Unless otherwise specified, Federal Airways include Class E airspace extending upward from

a. 1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.
b. the surface up to and including 18,000 feet MSL.
c. 700 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.

You answered "1,200 feet above the surface up to and including 17,999 feet MSL.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: Federal Airways include class E airspace that extends upward from 1200' AGL to 17999' MSL.While there are several ways to convince yourself of the "logic" of this (taking into account the vertical limits of class E airspace, exceptions in flight visibility permitted for takeoff and landing, etc), at this point, your best bet is to memorize this one.


Question 98
When are the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium?

a. When the aircraft is accelerating.
b. During unaccelerated flight.
c. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground.

You answered "During unaccelerated flight.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The four forces that act upon an aircraft are thrust, drag, lift, and weight (or gravity). When an aircraft is accelerating (either horizontally, up, or down), the force of thrust, lift, or gravity (respectively) is causing the aircraft to go from one state of equilibrium to another. Hence, the answer that states, "when the aircraft is accelerating" is incorrect. When the aircraft is at rest on the ground, the force of gravity is not in equilibrium with the force of lift. This may sound a bit silly, but if not for the ground beneath the parked airplane, the airplane would keep falling. The ground beneath is not one of the four forces that act on an airplane in equilibrium, so "when the aircraft is at rest on the ground" is also not correct. The correct answer is "during unaccelerated flight."


Question 99
What information is contained in a CONVECTIVE SIGMET?

a. Surface winds greater than 40 knots or thunderstorms equal to or greater than video integrator processor (VIP) level 4.
b. Severe icing, severe turbulence, or widespread dust storms lowering visibility to less than 3 miles.
c. Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.

You answered "Tornadoes, embedded thunderstorms, and hail 3/4 inch or greater in diameter.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: AC 00-45, section 4 states: Convective SIGMETs are issued in the conterminous U.S. for any of the following: 1. Severe thunderstorm due to: a. surface winds greater than or equal to 50 knots; b. hail at the surface greater than or equal 3/4 inches in diameter; c. tornadoes. 2. Embedded thunderstorms. 3. A line of thunderstorms. 4. Thunderstorms greater than or equal to VIP level 4 affecting 40% or more of an area at least 3000 square miles. Any Convective SIGMET implies severe or greater turbulence, severe icing and low level wind shear. A Convective SIGMET may be issued for any convective situation which the forecaster feels is hazardous to all categories of aircraft.


Question 100
When making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which codes?

a. 0700, 1700, 7000.
b. 7500, 7600, 7700.
c. 1200, 1500, 7000.

You answered "7500, 7600, 7700.".
This is the correct answer.
Reference: The Aeronautical Information Manual, paragraph 4-1-19 states: When making routine code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of codes 7500, 7600 or 7700 thereby causing momentary false alarms at automated ground facilities. For example, when switching from code 2700 to code 7200, switch first to 2200 then to 7200, NOT to 7700 and then 7200. This procedure applies to non-discrete code 7500 and all discrete codes in the 7600 and 7700 series (i.e. 7600-7677, 7700-7777) which will trigger special indicators in automated facilities. Only non-discrete code 7500 will be decoded as the hijack code.